The Cleveland Cavaliers have declined the $2.55 million team option on forward Chuma Okeke, making the 26-year-old an unrestricted free agent.
The decision was first reported by Michael Scotto of HoopsHype on Saturday. Okeke appeared in just two regular season games for Cleveland after a midseason stint with the Philadelphia 76ers.
He played in a combined nine contests during the 2024–25 campaign, averaging 5.9 points, 5.2 rebounds, and 1.7 assists in 21.8 minutes per game.
Okeke, a former first-round pick by the Orlando Magic in 2019, was sidelined his rookie year due to a torn ACL. He spent the next four seasons with the Magic before splitting time between Philadelphia and Cleveland this past season.
In his seven-game run with the Sixers, he averaged 6.9 points and 6.1 rebounds while shooting 54.5% from the field and 45.5% from beyond the arc.
After being acquired by the Cavaliers, Okeke’s role diminished significantly. He logged just 12.5 minutes per game across two regular season appearances, shooting 28.6% from the field.
Cleveland, which finished the season atop the Eastern Conference with a 64–18 record, had limited minutes available in its frontcourt rotation. The club swept Miami in the first round before being eliminated by Indiana in five games.
Okeke also saw sparse postseason action, logging 13 total minutes over three games in the Pacers series.
With the team option declined, Okeke now enters unrestricted free agency for the first time in his career. He joins a 2025 free agent market that includes multiple forwards vying for rotation roles on contending rosters.
For his career, Okeke has appeared in 198 regular season games, averaging 6.3 points, 3.8 rebounds, and 1.5 assists in 20.3 minutes per contest.
